Smee, play the devils advocate, try seeing it from the other side of the argument for a minute.
There is information you are assuming currently that does not actually exist, and there is also information that we do know that you are trying to ignore.
The only idiocy that is going on is people not realising that both solutions are correct…..
Your solution is only correct if the children do not yet exist. Then of course the probability of the first child being a girl is 50%, as it is the second child. With the information given in the question though, we know both children already exist, and at least one is a girl. This of course removes the 25% probability option of Boy/Boy existing, and therefore we have the 3 options stated previously remaining, each at 33.33% as probabilities always have to add up to 100%.
Boy/Girl IS NOT the same as Girl/Boy. Cannot be, never ever will be. If you have 2 children, one is a 12 year old girl and the other a 9 year old boy, is that the same as having a 12 year old boy and a 9 year old girl?