ASK THE UMPIRE
a nearly incident on the T20 finals at the weekend, got me thinking.
The batsman hit the ball into the ground, onto a pad, maybe a foot, trying a huge slog in the last couple of overs. The ball bounced up with backspin, and nearly rolled back onto the stumps. Meanwhile the non-striker had come through for a run and was close enough that if the ball had looked like hitting the stumps could have intercepted it.
The batter could legitimately have done that but could the non-striker? Is it obstructing the field when there wasn’t a fielder within probably 10 yards of the ball (was right at the end where a single is a good result for the fielding side so no major attempt for a fielder to charge in to try a run out). So he wouldn’t be obstructing anyone. Couldn’t be handled ball because he’d have used a foot.