But it still doesn’t alter the fact she has the right to.
Surely having a ‘right’ must in some way infer the ability to exercise it?
An example, to point out the absurdity – and distaste of this argument…
Would it be appropriate for someone from a black, asian, or any other ethnic background, to be called a f*king *@37#[insert whatever demeaning racial slur] in their workplace?
After all, they have the right not to be subjected to racial discrimination in the workplace – but perhaps they work for one of the public bodies previouslly assessedas being institutionally racist.
But they’ve got the right, so its ok, yes?
… or is it the reality that important?