I asked the question in, what I hope, is an unambiguous way.
Here are two explanations. I find that typically people will click with one of them:
Let’s play a game. You toss two coins and don’t let me see the results.
I’ll ask you if one of them is heads, when you reply I’ll then guess what the other coin is.
Hopefully you can see that this isn’t a fair game. I’ll win most of the time. But it is exactly the same as the boy-girl problem.
-Or-
Okay take a group of 100 of these parents. If they all have 1 child then 50 of them will have a girl and 50 will have a boy.
B = 50, G = 50
When the 50 that have a Boy then have a second child, 25 of the will have a second Boy and 25 of them will have a Girl. Likewise for the 50 that had a Girl first.
So out of the 100 parents we now have a nice even spread:
BB = 25, BG = 25, GB = 25, GG = 25
With me?
If you take one of those parents at random, ask them if they have at least one girl and they say yes then you know they must be in BG, GB or GG.
So they will have a boy in 50 out of 75 cases… or 66%