Seven years ago I was verbally asked to change my workplace to work in an office that is closer to home. I didnt mind as it was less travelling and this, to me was my new permanent workplace. I occasionally visited my old office but very rarely.

I didnt claim any mileage to work.

Now I have been moved to my original workplace. I was under the impression that as this is a change to my permanent workplace I am entitled to the additional mileage (difference between my previous and new workplace) for 3 years. The disturbance is 3 years at our place.

But i have been told i cant claim for this now.

Having looked at the government website if you are somewhere for a long time, then that becomes your permanent workplace in terms of work mileage.

So am I wring thinking that i am entitled to the difference in mileage travelling to my new workplace, which js further from home.

There is nothing clear in the company policies regarding this. My contract says my workplace is my original workplace where I was moved from originally.

My “home” site is stated on my written contract. It took a new written contract to change it when I moved sites. When it happened I had to be offered relocation expenses. My new contract requires me to work at any of several nearby sites.

I would be surprised if yours was any different. What is your listed home site on internal address books? That will be the HR data on file.

On the internal address book I was down as working in my ‘new’ workplace. however my contract wasnt changed and in that my base is the original workplace.

As it was closer to home at the time i didnt really think into it much until I was told to move to my original workplace.

Surely they cant say the 7 or so years I spent in the new office was a temporary workplace?

most contracts seem to say they can relocate you within x miles without compensation, mine is 50 miles

Mine doesnt say that, it only says where my permanent place of work is.

I may have been claiming to little mileage when working at my alternative place then.

I think that after that long it would have to be a substantive change in place of work even without a contract, as it’s been accepted by both parties for so long.